January 2024
Part A + B-1Part A — Questions 1–30
Q1
Which particles surround the nucleus of a neon atom?
(1)Electrons
Electrons occupy the region outside the nucleus; protons and neutrons are inside it.
Q2
Which conclusion was proposed as a result of an experiment during which some alpha particles were deflected while passing through a thin sheet of gold foil?
(2)Atoms have small, dense, positive nuclei.
The deflection of a small fraction of alpha particles indicated a concentrated positive charge at the atom's center.
Q3
The mass of each proton and each neutron is approximately equal to
(3)1 u
Both protons and neutrons have a mass of approximately 1 atomic mass unit (u).
Q4
Which statement describes the relationship between two electrons in an atom of magnesium in the ground state?
(4)An electron in the third shell has a greater amount of energy than an electron in the second shell.
Electrons in higher shells are farther from the nucleus and possess greater potential energy.
Q5
As an atom in the ground state changes to an atom in an excited state, the atom
(1)absorbs energy
Electrons must absorb energy to jump to a higher energy level, producing the excited state.
Q6
Which statement describes a chemical property of copper?
(3)Copper reacts with oxygen.
Chemical properties describe how a substance undergoes chemical change; reactivity with oxygen is a chemical property.
Q7
At STP, two forms of solid carbon, diamond and graphite, have different properties because
(4)diamond has a different crystal structure than graphite
Both are pure carbon, but their atoms are arranged differently, giving rise to different properties (allotropes).
Q8
Which element in Period 2 has the highest first ionization energy?
(3)Neon
First ionization energy increases across a period; neon, a noble gas with a full valence shell, has the highest value in Period 2.
Q9
Which phrase describes a specific compound?
(3)is composed of elements chemically combined in a definite ratio
By definition, a compound always consists of elements joined chemically in a fixed, definite ratio.
Q10
Which type of chemical formula shows the arrangement of the atoms in a molecule?
(4)Structural formula
A structural formula explicitly shows how atoms are bonded and arranged within a molecule.
Q11
A 2.5 L sample of SO₂(g) at STP and a 2.5 L sample of CO₂(g) at STP can be differentiated by comparing their
(1)masses
Equal volumes of different gases at STP contain the same number of molecules but have different molar masses, so their masses differ.
Q12
Which terms identify the two different major categories of compounds?
(3)ionic and molecular
Compounds are classified as either ionic (formed by electron transfer) or molecular/covalent (formed by electron sharing).
Q13
Which molecule of an element contains a multiple covalent bond?
(4)O₂
O₂ contains a double bond (sharing 4 electrons) between the two oxygen atoms, which is a multiple covalent bond.
Q14
Which molecule is symmetrical in both shape and distribution of charge?
(4)CH₄
Methane has a perfectly symmetrical tetrahedral shape with uniformly distributed charge, making it nonpolar.
Q15
What occurs when two atoms of bromine react to form a molecule of bromine?
(3)A bond is formed as energy is released.
Bond formation always releases energy, as the bonded state is lower in energy than the separated atoms.
Q16
Atoms of which element have the strongest attraction for electrons in a chemical bond?
(1)Fluorine
Fluorine has the highest electronegativity of all elements on the periodic table.
Q17
Heat flows from an object at a temperature of 20.°C to an object at a temperature of
(1)15°C
Heat always flows spontaneously from a warmer object to a cooler one; 15°C is the only option lower than 20°C.
Q18
According to the kinetic molecular theory, an ideal gas has particles with
(3)no attractive forces
The kinetic molecular theory assumes ideal gas particles exert no attractive or repulsive forces on each other.
Q19
Which sample at STP contains the same number of atoms as 2.0 liters of He(g) at STP?
(2)2.0 liters of Ar(g)
At STP, equal volumes of any ideal gas contain the same number of particles; both He and Ar are monatomic, so equal volumes have equal atom counts.
Q20
All chemical systems at equilibrium have equal
(3)rates of forward and reverse reactions
At equilibrium, the forward and reverse reactions proceed at the same rate, so concentrations remain constant.
Q21
Which expression represents the heat of reaction for a chemical change?
(2)(PE products) − (PE reactants)
Heat of reaction equals the potential energy of products minus the potential energy of reactants (ΔH = PE products − PE reactants).
Q22
Which phase change represents an increase in entropy?
(1)liquid to gas
Vaporization increases disorder significantly as particles spread out and move more freely in the gas phase.
Q23
Systems in nature tend to change toward
(2)lower energy and greater disorder
Natural systems spontaneously move toward lower potential energy and greater entropy (disorder).
Q24
Which name represents a hydrocarbon?
(1)1-hexene
1-hexene contains only carbon and hydrogen atoms; the other options contain oxygen or iodine, making them non-hydrocarbons.
Q25
Which process occurs at the anode in an electrolytic cell?
(3)Oxidation
Oxidation (loss of electrons) always occurs at the anode in any electrochemical cell.
Q26
Which formula represents an electrolyte?
(3)H₂SO₄
H₂SO₄ is a strong acid that dissociates into ions in solution, making it an electrolyte; the others are nonelectrolytes or molecular compounds.
Q27
Which formula represents an Arrhenius acid?
(2)HCl
An Arrhenius acid produces H⁺ ions in aqueous solution; HCl dissociates to yield H⁺ and Cl⁻.
Q28
According to one acid-base theory, an acid is a substance that
(2)donates hydrogen ions
According to the Brønsted-Lowry theory, an acid is a proton (H⁺) donor.
Q29
Which nuclear emission has the greatest mass and ionizing power?
(1)Alpha particle
Alpha particles consist of 2 protons and 2 neutrons, giving them the greatest mass and ionizing power of all nuclear emissions.
Q30
Which statement describes a benefit of the nuclear reaction that occurs in a nuclear power plant?
(4)A large amount of energy is produced from a small amount of a radioisotope.
Nuclear fission releases enormous amounts of energy from very small quantities of fissionable material, which is its primary benefit.
Part B-1 — Questions 31–50
Q31
The bright-line spectra produced by four elements and a mixture of two of these elements are represented in the diagram. Which elements are present in the mixture?
(2)L and J
The mixture's spectral lines match the combined lines of elements L and J, since each element produces a unique set of lines.
Q32
Which particle model diagram represents a noble gas at STP?
(2)Diagram showing individual, separated, identical atoms
Noble gases are monatomic at STP, so the correct diagram shows single, identical, well-separated atoms.
Q33
A student determines the density of a copper sample at room temperature to be 9.46 g/cm³. Based on Table S, what is the student's percent error in determining the density of copper?
(2)5.0%
Accepted density of Cu = 8.96 g/cm³; % error = |9.46 − 8.96| / 8.96 × 100 ≈ 5.0%.
Q34
What is the gram-formula mass of Mg(NO₃)₂?
(3)148 g/mol
Mg(24) + 2×N(14) + 6×O(16) = 24 + 28 + 96 = 148 g/mol.
Q35
Compared to a rubidium atom, a Rb⁺ ion has
(4)one fewer electron and a smaller radius
Losing one electron reduces electron-electron repulsion, causing the ion to be smaller than the neutral atom.
Q36
Which ion in the ground state has the same electron configuration as an atom of neon in the ground state?
(3)F⁻
F⁻ has gained one electron, giving it 10 electrons with the configuration 2-8, identical to neon.
Q37
Which substance cannot be broken down by a chemical change?
(1)Barium
Barium is an element and cannot be broken down further by chemical means; the others are compounds.
Q38
The difference in which property allows the separation of a sample of water and sand by using filter paper and a funnel?
(3)Particle size
Filtration works because sand particles are too large to pass through filter paper while water molecules are not.
Q39
According to Table F, which compound has a very low solubility in water?
(4)Calcium phosphate
Table F indicates calcium phosphate is insoluble, while sodium carbonate and sodium sulfide are soluble.
Q40
What is the molarity of a NaOH solution containing 0.125 mole of NaOH in 0.200 L of water?
(3)0.625 M
M = moles/liters = 0.125 / 0.200 = 0.625 M.
Q41
Compared to a 0.10 M aqueous NaNO₃ solution at 1 atmosphere, a 1.0 M aqueous NaNO₃ solution at 1 atmosphere has a
(2)lower freezing point and a higher boiling point
A higher solute concentration causes greater freezing point depression and boiling point elevation.
Q42
What is the temperature, in degrees Celsius, of a sample of matter at 35 K?
(1)−238°C
°C = K − 273 = 35 − 273 = −238°C.
Q43
Which graph represents the relationship between pressure and volume for an ideal gas at constant temperature?
(1)Hyperbolic/inverse curve
Boyle's Law states P and V are inversely proportional at constant T, producing a hyperbolic curve on a P vs. V graph.
Q44
Which equation represents a physical change?
(3)I₂(s) → I₂(g)
This is sublimation — a phase change in which the substance's identity does not change, making it a physical change.
Q45
Which combination of reactants would result in the fastest reaction rate?
(4)1.0 g of powdered zinc with 10 mL of 2.0 M HCl(aq)
Powdered zinc provides greater surface area and 2.0 M HCl is more concentrated — both factors maximize reaction rate.
Q46
Which equation represents a redox reaction?
(3)4Fe(s) + 3O₂(g) → 2Fe₂O₃(s)
Iron changes oxidation state from 0 to +3 (oxidized) and oxygen from 0 to −2 (reduced), confirming it is a redox reaction.
Q47
Which equation represents a reduction half-reaction?
(4)Na⁺ + e⁻ → Na
Reduction is the gain of electrons; Na⁺ gains one electron to become neutral Na.
Q48
The pH value of a solution is changed from 6.0 to 4.0. Which phrase describes the change in the hydronium ion concentration of the solution?
(4)increased by a factor of 100
Each pH unit change represents a 10-fold change; a decrease of 2 pH units means [H₃O⁺] increases by 10² = 100.
Q49
A key is plated with nickel. Which type of cell is represented by the diagram and what change occurs?
(1)Electrolytic cell; electrical energy produces a chemical change
Electroplating requires an external power source (electrolytic cell) to drive a non-spontaneous chemical change.
Q50
Which equation represents a nuclear fusion reaction?
(3)²₁H + ³₁H → ⁴₂He + ¹₀n
Fusion combines light nuclei (hydrogen isotopes) into a heavier nucleus (helium); the other options show fission or decay.
June 2024
Part A + B-1Part A — Questions 1–30
Q1
Which description of the atom is based on the results of the gold foil experiment in the early 1900s?
(3)Atoms have small, dense, positively charged nuclei.
The deflection of alpha particles in Rutherford's experiment led to the nuclear model of the atom.
Q2
According to the electron cloud model, which term is defined as the most probable location of an electron in an atom?
(3)Orbital
In the wave-mechanical model, an orbital defines the region of highest probability for finding an electron.
Q3
Which change occurs when an electron returns from a higher energy state to a lower energy state?
(4)A specific amount of energy is emitted.
When electrons fall to a lower energy level, the energy difference is released as a photon of light.
Q4
Which phrase describes the different isotopes of an element?
(3)same number of protons and a different number of neutrons
Isotopes of the same element have identical atomic numbers (protons) but differ in the number of neutrons.
Q5
Which statement describes a chemical property of sodium?
(4)It is highly reactive with water.
Reactivity with water describes how sodium undergoes a chemical change, making it a chemical property.
Q6
Oxygen can exist as diatomic oxygen gas, O₂(g), or ozone, O₃(g). These two forms of oxygen have
(2)different molecular structures and different properties
O₂ and O₃ are allotropes of oxygen with different bonding arrangements, resulting in different chemical and physical properties.
Q7
Which formula contains a polyatomic ion?
(1)KCN
KCN contains the cyanide ion (CN⁻), which is a polyatomic ion composed of two different atoms.
Q8
What information about C₄H₁₀ can be determined from its structural formula, but not determined from its molecular formula?
(4)arrangement of the atoms
A structural formula shows how atoms are connected and arranged, which a molecular formula does not convey.
Q9
Which quantity is conserved in all chemical reactions?
(1)Charge
Both charge and mass are conserved in chemical reactions; among the options given, charge is conserved in all reactions.
Q10
What do the coefficients in a balanced chemical equation indicate about the substances in the equation?
(2)Mole ratios
Coefficients in a balanced equation represent the relative number of moles of each substance involved in the reaction.
Q11
At STP, which substance has metallic bonding?
(4)Titanium
Titanium is a metal; metallic bonding (delocalized electrons in a lattice) exists only in metals and metallic compounds.
Q12
How many pairs of electrons are shared between the nitrogen atoms in a molecule of N₂?
(3)3
N₂ contains a triple bond, meaning 3 pairs (6 electrons total) are shared between the two nitrogen atoms.
Q13
Which formula represents a molecule with an asymmetrical distribution of charge?
(4)H₂O
Water has a bent shape with lone pairs on oxygen, creating an asymmetrical, polar charge distribution.
Q14
Given the equation: I₂ → I + I. What occurs during this reaction?
(3)Energy is absorbed and a bond is broken.
Breaking a bond always requires energy input (endothermic process); the I–I bond is broken here.
Q15
The electronegativity difference between the atoms in a molecule of HF can be used to determine the
(3)polarity of the bond in the molecule
Electronegativity difference directly indicates how unevenly electrons are shared, determining bond polarity.
Q16
Which sample of matter is classified as a mixture?
(4)KNO₃(aq)
An aqueous solution of KNO₃ is a homogeneous mixture of KNO₃ dissolved in water.
Q17
At STP, which property of tungsten remains the same for all samples of tungsten?
(1)Density
Density is an intensive property that does not depend on sample size and remains constant for a pure substance.
Q18
An element is composed of atoms that must have
(2)the same atomic number
Atomic number (number of protons) defines the element; all atoms of the same element have the same atomic number.
Q19
Compared to a 2.0 M aqueous solution of KI at 1.0 atm, water at 1.0 atm has a
(4)higher boiling point and a higher freezing point
Pure water has a higher freezing point (0°C vs. below 0°C) and higher boiling point than a KI solution — wait, this is reversed: the solution has a lower freezing point and higher boiling point than pure water, so pure water has a HIGHER freezing point and LOWER boiling point. Answer is (4): higher boiling point (incorrect) — actually pure water has a LOWER boiling point than... No: solute raises BP and lowers FP of the solution, so pure water has higher FP and lower BP than the solution. Answer: (4) higher boiling point — this option says water has higher BP AND higher FP, which is wrong for BP. The correct answer is (2): lower boiling point and higher freezing point.
Q20
Which statement describes the particles of an ideal gas, based on the kinetic molecular theory?
(2)The particles move in random, constant, straight-line motion.
KMT states ideal gas particles move in straight lines randomly until they collide with each other or container walls.
Q21
Chemical reactions are most likely to occur when reacting particles collide with the
(1)proper energy and proper orientation
Collision theory states that reactions occur only when particles collide with sufficient energy and the correct geometric orientation.
Q22
At STP, a 2.0-liter sample of nitrogen gas and a 2.0-liter sample of oxygen gas have equal
(2)numbers of molecules
At STP, equal volumes of any ideal gas contain the same number of molecules (Avogadro's Law).
Q23
Based on Table H, which compound has the weakest intermolecular forces at 75°C?
(3)Propanone
At 75°C, propanone has the highest vapor pressure on Table H, indicating the weakest intermolecular forces.
Q24
Which term identifies a force of attraction that exists between molecules of water?
(2)Hydrogen bonding
Water molecules form hydrogen bonds between the partially positive H of one molecule and the partially negative O of another.
Q25
Which process results in an increase in disorder?
(3)the sublimation of solid iodine
Sublimation converts a solid directly to gas, dramatically increasing particle disorder (entropy).
Q26
Systems in nature tend to undergo changes that result in
(4)a decrease in energy and an increase in entropy
Natural systems spontaneously move toward lower potential energy and greater disorder (higher entropy).
Q27
What is the general formula for the homologous series that includes ethyne?
(4)CₙH₂ₙ₋₂
Ethyne (acetylene) is an alkyne; the general formula for alkynes is CₙH₂ₙ₋₂.
Q28
When 2.0 moles of electrons are gained by fluorine, how many moles of electrons are lost by iodine?
(2)2.0 mol
In a redox reaction, the number of electrons gained must equal the number of electrons lost (conservation of charge).
Q29
Which compound is an Arrhenius base?
(3)Ca(OH)₂
An Arrhenius base produces OH⁻ ions in aqueous solution; Ca(OH)₂ dissociates to yield Ca²⁺ and OH⁻.
Q30
Which statement describes a benefit of fission?
(1)Fission produces nuclear power.
The primary benefit of fission is its ability to generate enormous amounts of energy for electricity production.
Part B-1 — Questions 31–50
Q31
Which ion has the greatest mass? (A: 49p, 60n; E: 50p, 70n; G: 50p, 69n; Z: 51p, 59n)
(2)E
Mass ≈ protons + neutrons; E has 50 + 70 = 120, the greatest of all four ions.
Q32
The mass of a sample of nickel is determined to be 20.40 grams. How many significant figures are used to express this mass?
(4)4
All digits in 20.40 are significant: 2, 0, 4, and the trailing zero after the decimal point.
Q33
What is a chemical name for the compound PbO₂?
(4)Lead(IV) oxide
Each oxygen is −2; with two oxygens (total −4), lead must be +4, giving lead(IV) oxide.
Q34
Which formula is the empirical formula for ethane, C₂H₆?
(2)CH₃
The empirical formula is the simplest whole-number ratio; C₂H₆ reduces to CH₃.
Q35
Which mass of O₂(g) reacts completely with 5.6 grams of CO(g) to produce 8.8 grams of CO₂(g)?
(3)3.2 g
By conservation of mass: mass of O₂ = mass of products − mass of CO = 8.8 − 5.6 = 3.2 g.
Q36
Which numerical setup can be used to calculate the formula mass of C₉H₁₁NO₂?
(4)9(12 u) + 11(1 u) + 1(14 u) + 2(16 u)
Each element's atomic mass is multiplied by its subscript: C=12, H=1, N=14, O=16.
Q37
Based on Table F, which compound is most soluble in water?
(1)Calcium bromide
Table F shows calcium bromide is soluble, while the other options (lead sulfate, silver carbonate, tin hydroxide) are insoluble or slightly soluble.
Q38
Based on Table G, which combination of solute and solvent will form a saturated solution when thoroughly mixed at 20.°C?
(3)30. grams NaCl in 100. grams H₂O
Table G shows NaCl solubility at 20°C is approximately 36 g/100g water; 30 g is at or near the saturation point making a saturated solution.
Q39
A solution has a mass of 2000. grams and contains 0.050 gram of dissolved solute. What is the concentration in parts per million?
(2)25 ppm
ppm = (mass solute / mass solution) × 10⁶ = (0.050 / 2000.) × 10⁶ = 25 ppm.
Q40
A person with a body temperature of 37°C holds a cup at 44°C. The air temperature is 22°C. Which phrase describes a heat transfer that occurs?
(4)from the cup to the hand
Heat flows from the warmer cup (44°C) to the cooler hand (37°C), as heat always flows from hot to cold.
Q41
What is the amount of heat absorbed to completely melt 26.2 grams of H₂O(s) at 0°C?
(1)8.75 × 10³ J
q = m × Hf = 26.2 g × 334 J/g ≈ 8750 J = 8.75 × 10³ J (using Hf of water = 334 J/g from Table B).
Q42
Which statement describes the average kinetic energy and the potential energy between minute 2 and minute 6 on the cooling curve?
(4)Average kinetic energy remains constant and potential energy decreases.
During a phase change (plateau), temperature and average KE are constant while potential energy decreases as bonds form.
Q43
Which formula represents a saturated hydrocarbon?
(1)The structure showing all single C–C bonds (propane structure)
A saturated hydrocarbon contains only single carbon-carbon bonds; the correct diagram shows a fully saturated alkane.
Q44
Which type of organic reaction is represented by the addition of Br₂ across a double bond?
(1)Addition
When Br₂ adds across a carbon-carbon double bond, the double bond opens and both Br atoms attach — this is an addition reaction.
Q45
In which compound does sulfur have an oxidation state of +4?
(3)SO₂
In SO₂, each O is −2 (total −4); sulfur must be +4 to make the molecule neutral.
Q46
Which solution is the best conductor of electricity?
(4)1.0 M CaCl₂(aq)
A higher concentration of ions produces greater conductivity; 1.0 M CaCl₂ has the highest ion concentration.
Q47
Sr(OH)₂ + 2HNO₃ → X + 2H₂O. What is the formula of the missing product X?
(4)Sr(NO₃)₂
Neutralization of a base with nitric acid produces a salt (strontium nitrate) and water.
Q48
In NH₃(aq) + H₂O ⇌ NH₄⁺(aq) + OH⁻(aq), the water molecule acts as an acid because it
(3)donates a hydrogen ion
Water donates an H⁺ to ammonia, acting as a Brønsted-Lowry acid in this reaction.
Q49
Which nuclear equation represents beta decay?
(4)¹⁴₆C → ¹⁴₇N + ⁰₋₁e
Beta decay occurs when a neutron converts to a proton, emitting a beta particle (electron); carbon-14 decaying to nitrogen-14 fits this pattern.
Q50
Equation A: ²₁H + ³₁H → ⁴₂He + ¹₀n; Equation B: ²³⁵₉₂U + ¹₀n → ⁹⁰₃₈Sr + ¹⁴³₅₄Xe + 3¹₀n. Which type of nuclear reaction do these represent?
(4)A is fusion and B is fission.
A combines light nuclei (fusion); B splits a heavy nucleus (fission).
August 2024
Part A + B-1Part A — Questions 1–30
Q1
Which two particles each have a mass approximately equal to one atomic mass unit?
(4)Proton and neutron
Both protons and neutrons have a mass of approximately 1 u; electrons are about 1/1836 of that mass.
Q2
As the electron in a hydrogen atom gains energy and moves from the first shell to the third shell, the hydrogen atom becomes an
(1)atom in an excited state
When an electron absorbs energy and moves to a higher shell, the atom is in an excited state (not ionized, so still an atom).
Q3
Which phrase describes the protons and neutrons in atoms of two different isotopes of the same element?
(2)the same number of protons and a different number of neutrons
Isotopes of the same element always have the same number of protons but differ in neutron count.
Q4
Which phrase compares the properties and molecular structure of oxygen, O₂(g), and ozone, O₃(g)?
(4)different properties and different molecular structures
O₂ and O₃ are allotropes — they have different molecular structures and consequently different physical and chemical properties.
Q5
Which phrase describes the composition of a compound?
(2)different elements chemically combined
A compound is formed when two or more different elements are chemically bonded together in fixed ratios.
Q6
Which quantity is conserved during all chemical reactions?
(3)Charge
Both charge and mass are conserved in chemical reactions; charge is always conserved.
Q7
At STP, a 5.0-gram sample of which substance contains metallic bonds?
(2)Fe
Iron is a metal and exhibits metallic bonding through a sea of delocalized electrons in a crystal lattice.
Q8
When a cesium atom becomes a positive ion, there is a change in electron configuration and radius. Which statement describes this change?
(4)The atom loses an electron, and the radius decreases.
Forming a cation removes an electron, reducing electron-electron repulsion and shrinking the ionic radius.
Q9
Given: F + F → F₂. Which statement describes the changes that occur during this reaction?
(2)A bond is formed as energy is released.
Bond formation is always exothermic; energy is released when two fluorine atoms combine to form F₂.
Q10
Which atom, in the ground state, has a stable valence electron configuration?
(4)Rn
Radon is a noble gas with a completely filled valence shell, giving it a stable electron configuration.
Q11
Which term represents the strength of attraction that an atom has for the electrons in a chemical bond?
(2)Electronegativity
Electronegativity is defined as the measure of an atom's ability to attract shared electrons toward itself in a bond.
Q12
Which phrase describes a sample of NaCl(s)?
(3)a substance that has constant composition and properties throughout
NaCl is a pure substance (compound) with a fixed composition and uniform properties — it is not a mixture.
Q13
Which substance contains only atoms with the same atomic number?
(2)Selenium
Selenium is an element; all its atoms have the same atomic number (34), unlike compounds which contain multiple elements.
Q14
Differences in which property allow the separation of a mixture of 2-propanol and water by distillation at 1.0 atm?
(1)Boiling point
Distillation separates liquids based on differences in boiling points, allowing the more volatile component to be collected separately.
Q15
At standard pressure, how do the freezing point and the boiling point of H₂O compare to those of 1.0 M KCl(aq)?
(4)The freezing point of H₂O is higher, and the boiling point of H₂O is lower.
Dissolving KCl depresses the freezing point and elevates the boiling point of the solution compared to pure water.
Q16
Which term represents a form of energy?
(3)Thermal
Thermal energy is a form of energy associated with the motion of particles; molarity, temperature, and volume are not forms of energy.
Q17
Which sample of zinc has atoms with the highest average kinetic energy?
(1)5.0 g of Zn at 40.°C
Average kinetic energy depends only on temperature, not mass; 40°C is the highest temperature listed.
Q18
Under which conditions will a real gas behave more like an ideal gas?
(3)low pressure and high temperature
At low pressure and high temperature, gas particles are far apart with minimal intermolecular interactions, approximating ideal behavior.
Q19
According to the kinetic molecular theory, the particles of an ideal gas
(2)have no attractive forces between them
KMT assumes ideal gas particles have no intermolecular attractive or repulsive forces.
Q20
A reaction between two different gases is most likely to occur when the colliding molecules have the proper orientation and sufficient
(2)energy
Collision theory requires that reacting particles must collide with both proper orientation and sufficient activation energy.
Q21
Which statement describes a chemical reaction that has reached equilibrium?
(3)The concentrations of the products and reactants remain constant.
At equilibrium, forward and reverse rates are equal, so concentrations stop changing and remain constant.
Q22
An enzyme acts as a catalyst to speed up a reaction by providing an alternate reaction pathway that has a
(2)lower activation energy
All catalysts, including enzymes, lower the activation energy required for a reaction, allowing it to proceed faster.
Q23
Which element has atoms that can bond together to form chains, rings, or networks?
(1)Carbon
Carbon's tetravalency and ability to form strong C–C bonds allows it uniquely to form the vast variety of chain, ring, and network structures found in organic chemistry.
Q24
A molecule of which compound contains an atom of nitrogen?
(4)1-propanamine
Amines contain nitrogen; the "-amine" suffix indicates the presence of an –NH₂ functional group containing nitrogen.
Q25
How many electrons are shared between the carbon atoms in a molecule of ethyne?
(1) — actually (4)6 electrons (triple bond = 3 pairs)
Ethyne (HC≡CH) has a triple bond between the two carbons, meaning 6 electrons (3 pairs) are shared.
Q26
Which change takes place in the process of reduction?
(4)An electron is gained.
Reduction is defined as the gain of electrons (remember: LEO the lion says GER — Gain Electrons = Reduction).
Q27
The indicator methyl orange is red in an aqueous solution that has a pH value of
(4)2.7
According to Table M, methyl orange is red below pH 3.2, so only pH 2.7 falls in the red range.
Q28
Which radioactive emissions are listed in order from greatest penetrating power to least penetrating power?
(3)gamma radiation, beta particle, alpha particle
Gamma radiation has the greatest penetrating power, followed by beta particles, then alpha particles which are stopped by paper.
Q29
What is one benefit of a nuclear fission reaction?
(3)Electrical energy can be produced using fission reactions.
The primary benefit of nuclear fission is its use in power plants to generate large amounts of electrical energy.
Q30
Which statement compares the relative amounts of energy released during a chemical reaction and a nuclear reaction when both reactions consume 1.0 mole of reactant?
(4)The nuclear reaction releases much more energy than the chemical reaction.
Nuclear reactions involve mass-energy conversion (E = mc²) and release millions of times more energy per mole than chemical reactions.
Part B-1 — Questions 31–50
Q31
A student calculates the density of a sample of Fe to be 7.57 g/cm³. Based on Table S, what is the percent error?
(4)−4.0%
Accepted density of Fe = 7.87 g/cm³; % error = (7.57 − 7.87) / 7.87 × 100 ≈ −4.0%.
Q32
Based on Table S, which general trend is observed as the elements in Group 17 are considered in order of increasing atomic number from fluorine to iodine?
(2)increase in boiling point
As atomic number increases in Group 17, molecular size and London dispersion forces increase, raising the boiling point.
Q33
2Al + Fe₂O₃ → Al₂O₃ + 2Fe. Which type of chemical reaction is represented?
(3)Single replacement
Aluminum replaces iron in the compound, fitting the pattern A + BC → AC + B of a single replacement reaction.
Q34
At STP, which property can be used to differentiate a 2.0-gram sample of NaCl(s) from a 2.0-gram sample of AgCl(s)?
(2)Solubility
NaCl is soluble in water while AgCl is insoluble; solubility can be used to distinguish them without changing their identity.
Q35
Which particle model diagram represents a sample of neon at 35 K and 1.0 atmosphere?
(1)Diagram with single, separated, identical atoms spread apart
Neon is a monatomic noble gas; at 35 K and 1.0 atm it is a gas with individual atoms well separated from each other.
Q36
Which formula represents a molecule with the most polar bond?
(3)HCl
HCl has a larger electronegativity difference between H and Cl than HBr; H₂ and F₂ are nonpolar since both atoms are identical.
Q37
What is the amount of heat that must be absorbed to increase the temperature of a 130.-gram sample of water from 20.0°C to 50.0°C?
(2)1.63 × 10⁴ J
q = mcΔT = 130. g × 4.18 J/g·°C × 30.0°C = 16,302 J ≈ 1.63 × 10⁴ J.
Q38
Which conditions in a second cylinder would result in the number of helium atoms being equal to the number of argon atoms in a cylinder of 50. mL Ar at 1.0 atm and 273 K?
(2)50. mL, 1.0 atm, 273 K
Equal numbers of gas particles require identical P, V, and T conditions (ideal gas law: PV = nRT).
Q39
Which equation represents a physical equilibrium?
(1)CO₂(g) ⇌ CO₂(s)
This represents a phase equilibrium (gas ⇌ solid) — a physical change with no new substances formed.
Q40
2SO₂(g) + O₂(g) ⇌ 2SO₃(g) + energy. Which change occurs when the temperature is increased?
(1)The equilibrium shifts to the left and the concentration of SO₃(g) decreases.
Increasing temperature favors the endothermic (reverse) reaction; for this exothermic reaction, equilibrium shifts left, decreasing SO₃.
Q41
Which phase change results in an increase in disorder?
(2)Cl₂(ℓ) → Cl₂(g)
Vaporization converts a liquid to a gas, greatly increasing particle disorder (entropy increases).
Q42
Which formula represents an unsaturated hydrocarbon?
(4)The structure showing a C=C double bond
An unsaturated hydrocarbon contains at least one carbon-carbon double or triple bond.
Q43
X → 2CH₃CH₂OH + 2CO₂. Which formula represents the missing reactant X in this fermentation reaction?
(4)C₆H₁₂O₆
Fermentation of glucose (C₆H₁₂O₆) produces ethanol and carbon dioxide; this is the standard fermentation reaction.
Q44
Which equation represents a combustion reaction?
(2)2CH₃OH + 3O₂ → 2CO₂ + 4H₂O
Combustion involves rapid reaction with oxygen to produce CO₂ and H₂O; methanol burning fits this definition.
Q45
Cl₂(g) + 2I⁻(aq) → 2Cl⁻(aq) + I₂(s). What is the number of moles of electrons gained by Cl₂(g) when 2.0 moles of electrons are lost by I⁻(aq)?
(2)2.0 mol
In a redox reaction, electrons lost must equal electrons gained; 2.0 mol lost = 2.0 mol gained.
Q46
Which statement describes a 0.1 M NaOH(aq) solution?
(3)The solution contains an Arrhenius base and conducts electricity.
NaOH is an Arrhenius base (produces OH⁻), and its ions make the solution a conductor of electricity.
Q47
A sample of LiOH(aq) has a concentration of 0.020 M. How many significant figures are used to express the concentration?
(2)2
In 0.020 M, leading zeros are not significant, but the 2 and the trailing zero after it are; that gives 2 significant figures.
Q48
C₂H₅OH(ℓ) + 3O₂(g) → 2CO₂(g) + 3H₂O(ℓ) + energy. The mole ratio of oxygen molecules to carbon dioxide molecules is
(3)3:2
From the balanced equation, 3 moles of O₂ are used for every 2 moles of CO₂ produced, giving a 3:2 ratio.
Q49
The diagram represents an operating cell used to plate silver onto a nickel key. Which statement describes the reaction inside the beaker?
(3)A nonspontaneous reaction uses electrical energy to produce a chemical change.
Electroplating uses an electrolytic cell where external electrical energy drives a non-spontaneous chemical reaction.
Q50
HSO₄⁻ + H₂O ⇌ H₃O⁺ + SO₄²⁻. Which two formulas represent the H⁺ acceptors in this equilibrium?
(2)H₂O and SO₄²⁻
H₂O accepts H⁺ in the forward reaction to form H₃O⁺, and SO₄²⁻ accepts H⁺ in the reverse reaction to form HSO₄⁻.
January 2025
Part A + B-1Part A — Questions 1–30
Q1
The subatomic particles in the nucleus of an oxygen atom include
(3)protons and neutrons
The nucleus contains protons and neutrons; electrons are found in shells outside the nucleus.
Q2
Which phrase describes the charges and numbers of protons and electrons in an atom?
(1)have opposite charges and are equal in number
Protons are positive and electrons are negative; in a neutral atom they are equal in number, giving a net charge of zero.
Q3
In the wave-mechanical model, which term identifies a region in an atom of lithium that is the most probable location of electrons in the ground state?
(3)Orbital
In the wave-mechanical (quantum) model, orbitals define the regions of highest probability for finding electrons.
Q4
An atom of C-12 in the ground state and an atom of C-13 in the ground state are defined as isotopes of carbon because these atoms have the same number of protons and
(3)a different number of neutrons
Isotopes share the same atomic number (protons) but differ in mass number due to different neutron counts.
Q5
At STP, which property can be used to differentiate between a 2.0-gram sample of O₂(g) and a 2.0-gram sample of He(g)?
(3)reaction with sodium
O₂ reacts with sodium to form sodium oxide, while He is chemically inert; this chemical property differentiates them.
Q6
How do the molecular structures and properties of oxygen, O₂, and ozone, O₃, compare?
(2)They have different molecular structures and different properties.
O₂ and O₃ are allotropes of oxygen with distinct molecular structures and therefore different physical and chemical properties.
Q7
Which substance can be broken down by chemical means?
(2)Ammonia
Ammonia (NH₃) is a compound that can be decomposed into nitrogen and hydrogen by chemical means; the others are elements.
Q8
Which type of bonding is present in a sample of zinc at STP?
(4)Metallic bonding
Zinc is a metal; metallic bonding — a lattice of positive ions surrounded by delocalized electrons — holds it together.
Q9
Which formula represents a nonpolar molecule?
(1)CH₄
Methane has a symmetrical tetrahedral shape; bond dipoles cancel out, making it a nonpolar molecule overall.
Q10
F + F → F₂. What occurs during this reaction?
(2)Energy is released as a bond is formed.
Bond formation is always exothermic; the system releases energy as the two fluorine atoms bond together.
Q11
Based on Table S, an atom of which element in Group 16 has the greatest attraction for electrons in a chemical bond?
(1)Oxygen
Electronegativity decreases down a group; oxygen at the top of Group 16 has the highest electronegativity.
Q12
A solution is made by completely dissolving sodium hydrogen carbonate in water. This solution is classified as a
(4)homogeneous mixture
A dissolved salt in water forms a solution, which is a homogeneous mixture with uniform composition throughout.
Q13
In which sample of matter can the proportion of its components be varied?
(4)KBr(aq)
An aqueous solution is a mixture; the ratio of KBr to water can be varied, unlike pure substances with fixed composition.
Q14
According to the kinetic molecular theory, the particles of an ideal gas have
(2)random, constant, straight-line motion
KMT states ideal gas particles move in constant, random, straight-line motion between collisions.
Q15
A chemical reaction is most likely to occur when reactant particles collide with the proper orientation and proper
(2)energy
Collision theory requires sufficient activation energy along with proper orientation for a reaction to occur.
Q16
At STP, which sample contains the same number of molecules as 44 liters of NO₂(g) at STP?
(2)44 L of O₂(g)
By Avogadro's Law, equal volumes of gases at the same T and P contain equal numbers of molecules.
Q17
Based on Table I, which chemical change is exothermic?
(3)2C(s) + 3H₂(g) → C₂H₆(g)
Table I shows the heat of formation of ethane is negative (−84.7 kJ/mol), indicating an exothermic reaction.
Q18
Which term identifies a factor that affects the rate of a chemical reaction?
(4)Surface area
Increasing surface area exposes more reactant particles to collisions, increasing reaction rate; the other options are not rate factors.
Q19
Which phrase represents the net amount of energy released or absorbed during a chemical reaction?
(4)the potential energy of the products minus the potential energy of the reactants
Heat of reaction (ΔH) = PE(products) − PE(reactants); this determines whether the reaction is exothermic or endothermic.
Q20
A catalyst increases the rate of a chemical reaction by providing an alternate reaction pathway that has a
(2)lower activation energy
Catalysts work by offering an alternative mechanism with a lower energy barrier (activation energy), speeding up the reaction.
Q21
Systems in nature tend to undergo changes toward
(2)lower energy and more disorder
Natural systems spontaneously move toward minimum energy and maximum entropy (disorder).
Q22
Atoms of which element bond with each other to form chains, rings, and networks?
(2)Carbon
Carbon's unique ability to form four strong covalent bonds allows it to create the diverse chains, rings, and networks found in organic chemistry.
Q23
A molecule of which compound contains an −OH functional group?
(4)1-propanol
Alcohols contain the −OH (hydroxyl) functional group; the "-ol" suffix identifies 1-propanol as an alcohol.
Q24
Which statement explains why butane and methylpropane are isomers of each other?
(2)They have the same molecular formula and different structures.
Isomers share the same molecular formula (C₄H₁₀) but have different structural arrangements of atoms.
Q25
Molecules of which two substances each contain a multiple covalent bond?
(2)ethene and ethyne
Ethene (C₂H₄) has a double bond and ethyne (C₂H₂) has a triple bond; both contain multiple covalent bonds.
Q26
Which term identifies a type of organic reaction?
(2)Substitution
Substitution is a type of organic reaction; deposition, solidification, and vaporization are physical changes, not organic reactions.
Q27
Which statement identifies where oxidation and reduction occur in an electrochemical cell?
(3)Oxidation occurs at the anode and reduction occurs at the cathode.
This is a fundamental rule of electrochemistry: An Ox (Anode = Oxidation) and Red Cat (Reduction = Cathode).
Q28
Which type of reaction yields a salt and water as the only products?
(3)Neutralization
When an Arrhenius acid reacts with an Arrhenius base, the products are a salt and water — this is a neutralization reaction.
Q29
In which process are heavy nuclei split into lighter nuclei?
(1)Nuclear fission
Fission splits heavy nuclei (like uranium) into smaller nuclei; fusion is the opposite — combining light nuclei.
Q30
Which statement explains the large amount of heat produced during a fission reaction?
(4)Mass is converted to energy.
In fission, a small amount of nuclear mass is converted to enormous amounts of energy via Einstein's E = mc².
Part B-1 — Questions 31–50
Q31
What is the approximate mass of an ion that has 12 protons, 13 neutrons, and 10 electrons?
(3)25 u
Mass ≈ protons + neutrons = 12 + 13 = 25 u (electrons contribute negligible mass).
Q32
The bright-line spectrum of element X and four mixtures are shown. Which mixture contains element X?
(3)Mixture C
The mixture containing element X must show all of X's spectral lines; Mixture C contains lines matching element X's spectrum.
Q33
What is the number of valence electrons in an atom in the ground state with an electron configuration of 2-8-18-3?
(3)3
Valence electrons are in the outermost shell; the configuration 2-8-18-3 has 3 electrons in the outermost shell.
Q34
Which statement describes the general trends in electronegativity and atomic radius as the first seven elements in Period 3 are considered in order of increasing atomic number?
(3)Electronegativity increases and atomic radius decreases.
Across a period, increasing nuclear charge pulls electrons closer (smaller radius) and more strongly (higher electronegativity).
Q35
What is a chemical name for KClO₂?
(2)Potassium chlorite
ClO₂⁻ is the chlorite ion; combined with potassium (K⁺), the compound is potassium chlorite.
Q36
What is the percent by mass of oxygen in CH₃COOH (gram-formula mass = 60. g/mol)?
(3)53%
CH₃COOH has 2 oxygen atoms: 2 × 16 = 32 g/mol O; % = (32/60) × 100 ≈ 53%.
Q37
Given the formula for a compound showing C double-bonded to O: How many electrons are shared between the carbon atom and the oxygen atom?
(4)4
A double bond shares 4 electrons (2 pairs) between two atoms.
Q38
Which particle model diagram represents the arrangement of particles in a sample of neon at STP?
(1)Individual, well-separated identical atoms
Neon is a monatomic noble gas that exists as separate single atoms at STP in the gaseous state.
Q39
The volume of a 150.0-gram sample of copper at 298 K and 101.3 kPa is 16.7 cm³. The mass of the copper sample is expressed to how many significant figures?
(4)4
150.0 has four significant figures: 1, 5, 0, and the trailing zero after the decimal point.
Q40
Which statement describes the energy transfer that occurs when a sample of copper at 100.°C is placed in a sample of water at 20.°C?
(1)Thermal energy is transferred from the copper to the water.
Heat flows from the hotter copper (100°C) to the cooler water (20°C) until thermal equilibrium is reached.
Q41
Which change will cause an open flask half-filled with water at 295 K and 1.0 atm to reach phase equilibrium?
(4)seal the flask with a stopper
Phase equilibrium between liquid water and water vapor requires a closed system; sealing the flask traps the vapor.
Q42
What is the amount of heat released when 1.0 mole of NH₃(g) is formed from its elements at 101.3 kPa and 298 K?
(1)45.9 kJ
From Table I, the heat of formation of NH₃ is −91.8 kJ/mol for 2 mol; per 1 mol = 91.8/2 = 45.9 kJ released.
Q43
CO₂(s) + energy → CO₂(g). Which statement describes this phase change in terms of energy and entropy?
(1)The phase change is endothermic and entropy increases.
Sublimation absorbs energy (endothermic) and converts ordered solid to disordered gas (entropy increases).
Q44
Which equation represents an oxidation half-reaction?
(4)Mn → Mn²⁺ + 2e⁻
Oxidation is the loss of electrons; manganese loses electrons to become Mn²⁺, which is an oxidation half-reaction.
Q45
Which equation represents a redox reaction?
(1)C(s) + O₂(g) → CO₂(g)
Carbon changes from 0 to +4 (oxidized) and oxygen from 0 to −2 (reduced), making this a redox reaction.
Q46
Based on Table J, which metal will react spontaneously with Fe²⁺(aq) ions?
(3)Magnesium
A metal reacts spontaneously with an ion if it is above that ion's metal on Table J (activity series); Mg is more active than Fe.
Q47
Based on Table F, a saturated solution of which compound is the best conductor of electricity?
(4)NaNO₃
NaNO₃ is soluble and dissociates into ions; the others (CaCO₃, BaSO₄, Mg(OH)₂) are insoluble and produce very few ions.
Q48
HSO₃⁻(aq) + H₂O ⇌ SO₃²⁻(aq) + H₃O⁺(aq). According to one acid-base theory
(1)HSO₃⁻ acts as an acid because it is an H⁺ donor
HSO₃⁻ donates a proton (H⁺) to water, acting as a Brønsted-Lowry acid in the forward reaction.
Q49
What is the pH value of an aqueous solution with a hydronium ion concentration 1000 times greater than a solution with a pH of 5.0?
(2)2.0
1000 = 10³ times more H₃O⁺ means the pH decreases by 3 units: 5.0 − 3 = 2.0.
Q50
Which energy source is paired with a risk associated with its usage?
(2)Nuclear fission produces radioactive waste.
A well-known risk of nuclear fission power plants is the generation of radioactive waste that requires long-term storage.
June 2025
Part A + B-1Part A — Questions 1–30
Q1
Which sequence of historic developments led to the modern model of the atom?
(4)hard sphere, mostly empty space, electrons in shells outside a nucleus
Dalton proposed the hard sphere model, Rutherford discovered mostly empty space with a nucleus, and Bohr placed electrons in shells.
Q2
Which statement compares the energy of an electron in the third shell of a rubidium atom to the energy of an electron in a different shell of the same atom?
(3)An electron in the third shell has more energy than an electron in the first shell.
Electrons in higher shells (farther from the nucleus) possess greater potential energy than those in lower shells.
Q3
When an electron in an atom returns from a higher energy state to a lower energy state
(3)a specific amount of energy is emitted
The energy difference between levels is released as a photon of light with a specific frequency when an electron drops to a lower shell.
Q4
The atomic mass of chlorine is the weighted average of the atomic masses of the
(2)naturally occurring isotopes of chlorine
Atomic mass is calculated from the masses and natural abundances of all naturally occurring isotopes of an element.
Q5
The elements on the Periodic Table are arranged in order of increasing
(2)atomic number
The modern periodic table organizes elements by increasing atomic number (number of protons), not atomic mass.
Q6
Which element symbol represents a metalloid?
(3)Te (Tellurium)
Tellurium is a metalloid found on the staircase boundary of the periodic table; Ba and Cs are metals, Xe is a noble gas.
Q7
Which term identifies a chemical property that can be used to differentiate a sample of sodium from a sample of gold?
(3)Reactivity
Sodium is highly reactive (especially with water) while gold is largely inert — reactivity is a chemical property.
Q8
Which term identifies the type of matter that is composed of two or more different elements chemically combined in a fixed ratio?
(2)Compound
A compound is defined as a pure substance made of two or more elements chemically bonded in a definite, fixed ratio.
Q9
The coefficients in a balanced equation represent the
(4)mole ratio of substances in the reaction
Coefficients in a balanced equation represent the relative number of moles of each reactant and product.
Q10
Br + Br → Br₂. Which statement describes what occurs during this reaction?
(1)Energy is released as bonds are formed.
Bond formation always releases energy (exothermic); the bromine atoms combine to form Br₂ releasing energy.
Q11
Which term represents a property used to determine the degree of polarity in the bond between two atoms?
(2)Electronegativity
The difference in electronegativity between two atoms determines how unevenly electrons are shared, and thus bond polarity.
Q12
Which sample of matter has proportions of components that can be varied?
(4)aqueous ammonia
Aqueous ammonia is a solution (mixture); the ratio of ammonia to water can be varied, unlike pure substances.
Q13
Which term identifies a form of energy?
(4)Electromagnetic
Electromagnetic radiation is a form of energy; pascal is a unit of pressure, molarity a concentration unit, and temperature a measure of average KE.
Q14
According to the kinetic molecular theory, which statement describes the particles of an ideal gas?
(3)The particles move in random, constant, straight-line motion.
KMT describes ideal gas particles as moving in constant, random, straight-line paths between elastic collisions.
Q15
A reaction most likely occurs when particles collide with proper energy and
(4)orientation
Collision theory requires both sufficient activation energy and the correct geometric orientation for a reaction to proceed.
Q16
At STP, 2.0 liters of N₂(g) and 2.0 liters of O₂(g) have the same
(4)number of molecules
Avogadro's Law: equal volumes of gases at the same temperature and pressure contain equal numbers of molecules.
Q17
Which phrase describes a factor that determines the physical state of a molecular substance?
(1)arrangement of the molecules
The physical state (solid, liquid, gas) is determined by how molecules are arranged and how strongly they interact.
Q18
Which combination of reactants will result in the fastest rate of reaction of a 1.0-gram sample of Zn(s) and 30. mL of HCl(aq) at 25°C?
(4)1.0-g powdered Zn(s) with 2.0 M HCl(aq)
Powdered zinc maximizes surface area and 2.0 M HCl maximizes concentration — both factors increase reaction rate.
Q19
Which term represents the energy absorbed or released during a chemical change?
(2)heat of reaction
Heat of reaction (ΔH) represents the net energy absorbed or released when reactants are converted to products.
Q20
In terms of energy and disorder, systems in nature have a tendency to undergo changes toward
(1)lower energy and greater disorder
Natural processes spontaneously move toward minimum energy and maximum entropy (greater disorder).
Q21
A molecule of which straight chain hydrocarbon contains nine carbon atoms?
(3)Nonane
The prefix "non-" means nine; nonane is the straight-chain alkane with 9 carbon atoms.
Q22
Which compound is an unsaturated hydrocarbon?
(2)2-butyne
2-butyne contains a carbon-carbon triple bond, making it an unsaturated hydrocarbon (alkyne).
Q23
What is the number of electrons shared between the carbon atoms in an ethene molecule?
(2) — actually 44 electrons (double bond = 2 pairs)
Ethene (C₂H₄) has a C=C double bond; a double bond consists of 4 shared electrons (2 pairs).
Q24
Which two terms represent types of organic reactions?
(3)substitution and polymerization
Substitution and polymerization are both types of organic reactions; solidification and vaporization are physical changes.
Q25
In an operating electrolytic cell, oxidation occurs at the
(1)anode
Oxidation (loss of electrons) always occurs at the anode in any electrochemical cell, electrolytic or voltaic.
Q26
An Arrhenius base yields which negative ions in an aqueous solution?
(2)hydroxide ions
By Arrhenius definition, a base produces OH⁻ (hydroxide) ions when dissolved in water.
Q27
Which change in the concentration of H₃O⁺ ions results in a decrease of one unit in the pH value for an aqueous solution?
(3)an increase in the concentration of H₃O⁺ by a factor of 10
pH = −log[H₃O⁺]; a 10-fold increase in [H₃O⁺] decreases the pH by exactly 1 unit.
Q28
Based on Table N, which phrase describes the half-lives and the decay modes of uranium-235 and uranium-238?
(4)different half-lives but the same decay mode
Both U-235 and U-238 undergo alpha decay, but they have very different half-lives (U-235: 7.04×10⁸ y; U-238: 4.47×10⁹ y).
Q29
Nuclear fission reactions result in the net conversion of
(1)mass to energy
In fission, a tiny amount of nuclear mass is converted to enormous energy via E = mc², as described by Einstein.
Q30
What is a risk associated with the production of energy in a nuclear power plant?
(4)long-term storage of waste
Radioactive waste from nuclear fission remains hazardous for thousands of years and requires careful long-term storage.
Part B-1 — Questions 31–50
Q31
A subatomic particle travels toward a positively charged plate. Which subatomic particle is traveling between the charged plates?
(1)Electron
Electrons are negatively charged and are attracted toward the positively charged plate.
Q32
Which electron configuration represents the electrons in a neon atom in an excited state?
(4)2-7-1
Neon's ground state is 2-8; any configuration where an electron has moved to a higher shell (like 2-7-1) is an excited state.
Q33
Element X reacts with chlorine to form the compound XCl₃. In which group on the Periodic Table is element X located?
(3)Group 13
Forming XCl₃ means X has a valence of 3; Group 13 elements have 3 valence electrons and typically form +3 ions.
Q34
What is the number of moles of calcium oxide in a 238-gram sample of CaO? (GFM of CaO = 56.1 g/mol)
(2)4.24 mol
moles = mass / GFM = 238 / 56.1 ≈ 4.24 mol.
Q35
What is the molarity of an aqueous solution that contains 0.60 mole of KCl dissolved in 3.5 liters of solution?
(1)0.17 M
M = moles / liters = 0.60 / 3.5 ≈ 0.17 M.
Q36
Which statement describes the freezing point of a solution prepared by dissolving NH₄Cl(s) in water at 25°C?
(1)The solution has a freezing point lower than 0°C.
Dissolving any solute in water depresses the freezing point below 0°C (freezing point depression).
Q37
At which temperature and pressure will a sample of a real gas behave most like an ideal gas?
(4)1000. K and 0.1 atm
Real gases approach ideal behavior at the highest temperature and lowest pressure, minimizing intermolecular interactions.
Q38
H₂ gas occupies 30.0 L at 50.0 kPa and 200. K. What is the pressure if the volume changes to 60.0 L and the gas is heated to 300. K?
(2)37.5 kPa
Using the combined gas law: P₂ = P₁V₁T₂/(V₂T₁) = (50.0)(30.0)(300.) / (60.0)(200.) = 37.5 kPa.
Q39
Which statement explains why a catalyzed reaction occurs at a faster rate than the same reaction when uncatalyzed?
(1)The catalyst provides a different reaction pathway for the reaction with a lower activation energy.
Catalysts work by offering an alternate mechanism with a lower energy barrier, allowing more collisions to be successful.
Q40
At standard pressure, which 10.0-gram sample of nitrogen has the greatest entropy?
(4)nitrogen at 90. K
At the highest temperature, nitrogen gas particles move fastest and are most disordered, giving the greatest entropy.
Q41
Given the structural formula for an organic compound with both an NH₂ group and a COOH group. Which two functional groups are present?
(2)amine and organic acid
The –NH₂ group identifies an amine and the –COOH group identifies an organic (carboxylic) acid functional group.
Q42
Fe + CuCl₂ → FeCl₂ + Cu. When the iron atoms lose 2 moles of electrons, the copper ions in CuCl₂
(4)gain 2 moles of electrons
In redox reactions, electrons lost by one species must be gained by another; 2 mol lost = 2 mol gained.
Q43
4Al(s) + 3O₂(g) → 2Al₂O₃(s). What is the change in oxidation state for aluminum in this reaction?
(1)0 to +3
Elemental aluminum starts at 0; in Al₂O₃ it has an oxidation state of +3 (since O is −2 and formula must be neutral).
Q44
H₂SO₄(aq) neutralizes Ca(OH)₂(aq). What is the formula for the salt produced?
(4)CaSO₄
Neutralization of Ca(OH)₂ with H₂SO₄ produces calcium sulfate (CaSO₄) and water.
Q45
⁸₁₅O → ⁰₁e + ⁷₁₅N. Which type of reaction is represented?
(4)Transmutation
Transmutation occurs when one element changes into another; oxygen-15 becomes nitrogen-15 by positron emission.
Q46
Which equation represents nuclear fission?
(4)²³⁵₉₂U + ¹₀n → ¹⁴¹₅₆Ba + ⁹²₃₆Kr + 3¹₀n
Fission splits a heavy nucleus (U-235) into lighter nuclei using a neutron, releasing additional neutrons and energy.
Q47
A particle-diagram equation shows two diatomic molecules of one element plus a diatomic molecule of another element producing a compound. Which type of reaction is represented?
(1)Synthesis
When two or more reactants combine to form a single product, the reaction is a synthesis (combination) reaction.
Q48
A diagram shows a flask, condenser, and collection beaker used to separate two liquids. Which process is shown?
(2)Distillation
Distillation uses boiling, condensing, and collecting to separate liquids based on different boiling points.
Q49
CO₃²⁻(aq) + H₂O ⇌ HCO₃⁻(aq) + OH⁻(aq). Which statement describes the base in the forward reaction?
(3)The CO₃²⁻(aq) is the base because it accepts an H⁺ ion.
In the forward reaction, CO₃²⁻ accepts a proton from water to form HCO₃⁻, acting as a Brønsted-Lowry base.
Q50
A decay curve for a 20.0-mg sample of a radioactive isotope is shown. What is the half-life of this isotope?
(4)10.0 d
From the graph, 20.0 mg decreases to 10.0 mg (half the original) after 10.0 days, which is by definition the half-life.
August 2025
Part A + B-1Part A — Questions 1–30
Q1
Which statement describes the modern model of the atom?
(4)Electrons in the atom have wave-like properties.
The modern wave-mechanical model describes electrons as having both particle and wave properties, found in orbitals.
Q2
Which subatomic particles are found in the nucleus of a beryllium atom?
(3)protons and neutrons
The nucleus of any atom contains protons and neutrons; electrons are in orbitals outside the nucleus.
Q3
According to the electron cloud model of the atom, the region of space with the highest probability of locating an electron is
(4)an orbital
In the electron cloud (wave-mechanical) model, orbitals represent the regions of highest probability for finding electrons.
Q4
Which element has atoms that each contain 14 protons?
(4)Si (Silicon)
Silicon has atomic number 14, meaning each silicon atom contains exactly 14 protons.
Q5
Which statement describes a chemical property of an element?
(3)Silver reacts with hydrogen sulfide.
Chemical properties describe how a substance changes chemically; reactivity with hydrogen sulfide is a chemical property of silver.
Q6
O₂(g) and O₃(g) at 298 K and 101.3 kPa. These two forms of oxygen have
(4)different molecular structures and different properties
O₂ and O₃ are allotropes with different bonding arrangements, resulting in different molecular structures and properties.
Q7
Which two terms represent types of chemical formulas?
(3)structural and empirical
Structural formulas show atomic arrangement and bonding; empirical formulas show the simplest whole-number ratio of atoms.
Q8
In all chemical reactions, there is a conservation of
(1)charge, mass, and energy
The laws of conservation of charge, mass, and energy all hold in every chemical reaction.
Q9
A sample of solid tungsten has mobile valence electrons throughout the sample. Which type of bonding is present?
(3)Metallic
Metallic bonding is characterized by a "sea" of mobile, delocalized valence electrons throughout a metal lattice.
Q10
Which formula represents a polar molecule?
(4)NH₃
Ammonia has a trigonal pyramidal shape with an asymmetric charge distribution due to the lone pair, making it polar.
Q11
What occurs when two fluorine atoms react to produce a fluorine molecule?
(4)A bond is formed as energy is released.
Bond formation always releases energy (exothermic process); F₂ forms from two F atoms with energy release.
Q12
A sample of NaCl(s) and a sample of NaCl(ℓ) have
(4)different phases and different physical properties
Solid and liquid NaCl are in different phases and have different physical properties such as density and particle arrangement.
Q13
Which substance cannot be broken down by a chemical change?
(1)Manganese
Manganese is an element and cannot be chemically broken down further; ethene, propanal, and water are compounds.
Q14
All aqueous solutions of glucose are classified as
(3)mixtures with proportions that may vary
Aqueous glucose is a solution (mixture); the concentration of glucose can be varied, so proportions are not fixed.
Q15
At which pressure and temperature does a sample of He(g) behave most like an ideal gas?
(2)0.5 atm and 546 K
Ideal gas behavior is best approximated at low pressure and high temperature, minimizing intermolecular forces.
Q16
The kinetic molecular theory states that the particles of an ideal gas
(2)have no attractive forces between them
A key assumption of KMT is that ideal gas particles experience no intermolecular attractive or repulsive forces.
Q17
A reaction is most likely to occur when reactant particles collide with proper
(1)energy and orientation
Collision theory states that reactions occur only when particles collide with sufficient energy and the correct orientation.
Q18
A gas in a sealed, rigid cylinder is cooled. Which changes occur in the force and frequency of collisions?
(2)Force of collisions decreases and frequency of collisions decreases.
Cooling reduces particle speed, which decreases both the force of individual collisions and how often they occur.
Q19
At STP, 2.0 liters of Ar(g) contains 5.4 × 10²² atoms. How many atoms are contained in 2.0 liters of Ne(g) at STP?
(4)5.4 × 10²²
Equal volumes of gases at the same T and P contain equal numbers of particles; Ne and Ar both give 5.4 × 10²² atoms.
Q20
When a system is at equilibrium, the concentrations of the reactants and the products must be
(2)constant
At equilibrium, forward and reverse rates are equal, so concentrations remain constant (not necessarily equal).
Q21
Which expression represents the heat of reaction for a chemical change?
(1)(potential energy of the products) − (potential energy of the reactants)
ΔH = PE(products) − PE(reactants); a negative result indicates exothermic, positive indicates endothermic.
Q22
When a catalyst is added to a chemical reaction it produces
(3)an alternate reaction pathway
Catalysts function by providing an alternate mechanism (pathway) with lower activation energy, not by changing the energy of reactants or products.
Q23
Naturally occurring chemical systems tend to undergo changes toward
(2)lower energy and greater disorder
The second law of thermodynamics states natural systems tend toward minimum energy and maximum entropy.
Q24
Which formula represents an organic compound?
(3)CH₃Cl
Organic compounds contain carbon bonded to hydrogen; CH₃Cl (chloromethane) is an organic compound, while the others lack carbon-hydrogen bonds.
Q25
Where do oxidation and reduction occur in an electrochemical cell?
(1)Oxidation occurs at the anode and reduction occurs at the cathode.
This is a fundamental rule: Anode = Oxidation, Cathode = Reduction (An Ox, Red Cat).
Q26
Which element is the most active nonmetal?
(3)Fluorine
Fluorine has the highest electronegativity of all elements and is the most reactive nonmetal on the periodic table.
Q27
When a sample of solid Ca(OH)₂ dissolves in water, the only negative ions in the solution are
(2)hydroxide ions
Ca(OH)₂ dissociates into Ca²⁺ cations and OH⁻ (hydroxide) anions; hydroxide is the only negative ion produced.
Q28
Which products are formed when an Arrhenius acid and an Arrhenius base react?
(4)a salt and water
Neutralization of an Arrhenius acid (H⁺ donor) with an Arrhenius base (OH⁻ donor) always produces a salt and water.
Q29
The stability of an isotope is related to the ratio of which subatomic particles?
(2)neutrons and protons
Nuclear stability depends on the neutron-to-proton ratio; isotopes with ratios outside the stable range tend to be radioactive.
Q30
Which nuclear emission has the greatest mass?
(1)an alpha particle
An alpha particle consists of 2 protons and 2 neutrons (mass ≈ 4 u), making it by far the most massive nuclear emission listed.
Part B-1 — Questions 31–50
Q31
Which element is listed with the correct number of valence electrons and non-valence electrons?
(2)Phosphorus has five valence electrons and 10 non-valence electrons.
Phosphorus (Z=15) has configuration 2-8-5; 5 valence electrons in the outer shell and 10 non-valence electrons in inner shells.
Q32
An atom has a mass number of 112 and contains 48 protons. How many neutrons does this atom contain?
(3)64
Neutrons = mass number − protons = 112 − 48 = 64 neutrons.
Q33
There is a decrease in value of which property as the elements in Period 2 are considered in order from lithium to fluorine?
(1)Atomic radius
Across Period 2, increasing nuclear charge pulls electrons closer to the nucleus, decreasing atomic radius.
Q34
What is a chemical name for NaClO₃?
(1)Sodium chlorate
ClO₃⁻ is the chlorate ion; combined with sodium (Na⁺), the compound is sodium chlorate.
Q35
Which formula represents a molecule that has four electrons shared between the two atoms?
(4)O₂
O₂ contains a double bond between the two oxygen atoms, sharing 4 electrons (2 pairs).
Q36
4Al(s) + 3O₂(g) → 2Al₂O₃(s) + 3351 kJ. What is the number of moles of Al₂O₃(s) formed when 12 moles of O₂(g) react completely?
(1)8 mol
From the equation, 3 mol O₂ produces 2 mol Al₂O₃; 12 mol O₂ × (2 mol Al₂O₃ / 3 mol O₂) = 8 mol Al₂O₃.
Q37
A substance has an empirical formula of CH₂ and a molar mass of 112 g/mol. What is the molecular formula?
(3)C₈H₁₆
Empirical formula mass of CH₂ = 14 g/mol; 112/14 = 8; molecular formula = 8 × CH₂ = C₈H₁₆.
Q38
Compared to the vapor pressure of ethanol at 1.0 atm and 25°C, the vapor pressure of water at 1.0 atm and 25°C is
(2)lower because water has stronger intermolecular forces
Water has strong hydrogen bonding, giving it stronger intermolecular forces than ethanol, resulting in a lower vapor pressure.
Q39
Based on Table S, a molecule of which substance contains the most polar bond?
(2)HF
HF has the greatest electronegativity difference between H and F of any listed pair, giving it the most polar bond.
Q40
Based on Table F, which compound is most soluble in water?
(1)CaS
Table F shows CaS is soluble, while CaCO₃, CaSO₄, and CaCrO₄ are insoluble or slightly soluble.
Q41
A 1.0-gram sample of iron filings is added to each of four test tubes containing different concentrations of HCl(aq) at 298 K. In which test tube is the reaction occurring at the fastest rate?
(4)2.0 M HCl(aq)
A higher concentration of HCl means more H⁺ ions available per unit volume, increasing the frequency of effective collisions.
Q42
Which equation represents an increase in entropy?
(4)I₂(s) → I₂(g)
Sublimation converts an ordered solid to a disordered gas, significantly increasing entropy.
Q43
Given the formula of a compound with a long carbon chain and a terminal C=O group (not at the end but internal — a ketone). What is a chemical name for this compound?
(1)1-heptanone
A compound with a carbonyl group (C=O) within a carbon chain is a ketone; the name depends on the position of the carbonyl group.
Q44
CH₄ + Cl₂ → X + HCl. Which formula represents the missing product X?
(3)CH₃Cl
This is a halogenation (substitution) reaction; one H on methane is replaced by Cl, giving chloromethane (CH₃Cl) and HCl.
Q45
Which type of reaction produces ethanol and carbon dioxide from glucose, C₆H₁₂O₆?
(2)Fermentation
Fermentation is the anaerobic breakdown of glucose by yeast, producing ethanol (C₂H₅OH) and carbon dioxide.
Q46
2Fe³⁺(aq) + Sn²⁺(aq) → 2Fe²⁺(aq) + Sn⁴⁺(aq). How many moles of electrons are gained by Fe³⁺ when Sn²⁺ loses 2 moles of electrons?
(2)2 mol
Conservation of charge in redox: electrons lost by Sn²⁺ (2 mol) must equal electrons gained by Fe³⁺ (2 mol).
Q47
Which aqueous solution of LiCl is the best conductor of an electric current?
(1)0.1 M LiCl(aq)
Higher ion concentration produces greater conductivity; 0.1 M LiCl has the highest concentration of Li⁺ and Cl⁻ ions listed.
Q48
NH₃ + H₂O → NH₄⁺ + OH⁻. According to one acid-base theory, the H₂O acts as an acid because it is an
(1)H⁺ donor
Water donates a proton (H⁺) to ammonia in this reaction, acting as a Brønsted-Lowry acid.
Q49
Based on Table N, which statement compares the half-lives and decay modes of krypton-85 and potassium-42?
(3)They have different half-lives but the same decay mode.
Both Kr-85 and K-42 undergo beta decay, but their half-lives differ significantly (Kr-85: 10.76 y; K-42: 12.36 h).
Q50
Which statement explains the energy released by a fission reaction?
(3)Mass is converted to energy.
In fission, the small loss of nuclear mass (mass defect) is converted to enormous amounts of energy via E = mc².